Wednesday, November 6, 2024

Paper 2, Section 2, Unit 2- Fundamental Rights – Directive Principles of the State Policy – Fundamental Duties

 Fundamental Rights

Right to equality (Articles 14–18)

Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)

Right against exploitation (Articles 23–24)

Right to freedom of religion (Articles 25–28)

Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29–30)

Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

The Indian Constitution bestows 6 fundamental rights on every Indian citizen, which are enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the Indian Constitution.

Crucial Role of Article 13: Safeguarding Fundamental Rights in India

1. What is the primary purpose of fundamental rights in a nation?

A. To promote industrial development B. To enhance technological advancements C. To safeguard the interests of its people D. To improve infrastructure

2. What role does Article 13 play in the Indian Constitution?

A. Establishes the Union List B. Declares any law that infringes upon fundamental rights null and void C. Defines the procedure for constitutional amendments D. Provides guidelines for financial distribution

3. Which power is explicitly granted to the judiciary by Article 13?

A. Legislative power B. Executive power C. Judicial review D. Administrative power

6. What is the essence of Article 13 in the context of fundamental rights?

A. To promote economic development B. To provide healthcare facilities C. To serve as a guardian of the people’s rights D. To enhance educational standards

1. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?

A. Article 14-18 B. Article 19-22 C. Article 23-24 D. Article 25-28

  • The right to equality is guaranteed by the Constitution in Articles 14 – 18. 
  • Right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) 

2. Which fundamental right prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour?

A. Right to Equality B. Right to Freedom C. Right Against Exploitation (Article 23& 24) D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

  • Article 24 says that “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.” The fundamental right against exploitation guaranteed to all citizens prohibits child labour in mines, factories, and hazardous conditions.
  • Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution deal with the right against exploitation

3. Under which article can the President suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a proclamation of emergency?

A. Article 32 B. Article 34 C. Article 359 D. Article 360

  • During a National Emergency in India, some of the Fundamental Rights get suspended. There are two constitutional provisions (Article 358 and Article 359) regarding the same.
  • Article 358 – Suspension of Fundamental Rights under Article 19: As per Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 (Right to Freedom) are automatically suspended.
  • Article 359 addresses the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21). In other words, even during an emergency, the right to protection from criminal prosecution (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable.

  • Article 359 – Suspension of Other Fundamental Rights
    • As per Article 359, the President can suspend the right to move any court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
    • In this case, Fundamental Rights themselves are not suspended, but only their enforcement is suspended.

    4. Which of the following is not a part of the Right to Freedom guaranteed under Article 19?

    A. Freedom of speech and expression B. Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms C. Freedom of property D. Freedom to practice any profession

    5. Which of the following cases is associated with the protection of Fundamental Rights in India?

    A. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala B. Minerva Mills v. Union of India C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India D. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

    Directive Principles of State Policy

    1. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?

    A. Part III B. Part IV C. Part V D. Part VI

    2. Which article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people?

    A. Article 37 B. Article 38 C. Article 39 D. Article 40

    3. The Directive Principles aim at providing social and economic democracy and are based on which country's constitution?

    A. USA B. Ireland C. UK D. Canada

    4. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?

    A. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women B. Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections C. Right to constitutional remedies D. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife

    5. Which amendment added the concept of free and compulsory education for children under Article 45 to the Directive Principles of State Policy?

    A. 42nd Amendment B. 86th Amendment C. 44th Amendment D. 73rd Amendment

    Fundamental Duties

    1. In which year were the Fundamental Duties incorporated into the Indian Constitution?

    A. 1975 B. 1976 C. 1977 D. 1978

    2. Which article of the Indian Constitution lists the Fundamental Duties of citizens?

    A. Article 50A B. Article 51 C. Article 51A D. Article 52

    3. How many Fundamental Duties are listed in the Indian Constitution?

    A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13

    4. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty according to the Indian Constitution?

    A. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India B. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform C. To protect monuments of national importance D. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

    5. The idea of Fundamental Duties was borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

    A. USA B. Russia (erstwhile USSR) C. UK D. Japan


    Constitutional Amendments and Fundamental Rights

    1. What is required to make any changes to the fundamental rights in India?

    A. Executive order B. Judicial review C. Constitutional amendment D. Legislative resolution

    2. According to Article 13(2) of the Constitution, what cannot be enacted to undermine fundamental rights?

    A. Administrative rules B. Laws C. Executive orders D. Judicial interpretations

    3. In which case did the Supreme Court rule that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, in 1965?

    A. Golaknath Case B. Sajjan Singh Case C. Kesavananda Bharati Case D. Minerva Mills Case

    4. In which case did the Supreme Court state that fundamental rights cannot be amended in 1967?

    A. Kesavananda Bharati Case B. Golaknath Case C. Minerva Mills Case D. Sajjan Singh Case

    5. What was the significant judgment of the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati Case in 1973?

    A. Fundamental rights cannot be amended B. Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, but cannot abrogate the basic structure of the Constitution C. The basic structure doctrine is not applicable D. Only executive orders can amend fundamental rights

    6. What does the "basic structure" doctrine empower the judiciary to do?

    A. Amend the Constitution B. Create new fundamental rights C. Strike down any amendment enacted by Parliament that contradicts the fundamental tenets of the Constitution D. Enforce administrative rules

    7. In what year did the Supreme Court reaffirm the Basic Structure doctrine and specify its non-retroactive application?

    A. 1975 B. 1976 C. 1979 D. 1981

    8. As per the Supreme Court, from which date should the Basic Structure doctrine not be applied retrospectively to challenge amendments?

    A. April 24th, 1967 B. April 24th, 1973 C. January 26th, 1950 D. August 15th, 1947

    9. What did the Supreme Court state in the Kesavananda Bharati Case regarding the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

    A. Parliament can amend the Constitution but cannot alter the basic structure B. Parliament cannot amend any part of the Constitution C. Parliament can only amend procedural aspects of the Constitution D. Parliament can amend the Constitution without any restrictions

    10. Which article of the Constitution explicitly grants the judiciary the power of judicial review?

    A. Article 12 B. Article 32 C. Article 13 D. Article 226

    Mudra Yojana

     1. What is the new limit for Mudra loans under the 'Tarun' category?

    A. Rs.15 lakh B. Rs.18 lakh C. Rs.20 lakh D. Rs.25 lakh

    2. What was the previous limit for Mudra loans under the 'Tarun' category before the enhancement?

    A. Rs.5 lakh B. Rs.8 lakh C. Rs.10 lakh D. Rs.12 lakh

    3. Who is eligible for the enhanced limit of Mudra loans under the 'Tarun' category?

    A. New entrepreneurs B. Students C. Entrepreneurs who have successfully repaid previous loans under the same category D. Government employees

    4. What is the purpose of Mudra Yojana?

    A. To provide scholarships for students B. To offer health insurance C. To provide financial assistance to small and micro enterprises D. To promote digital literacy

    5. Which category under Mudra Yojana has the enhanced loan limit?

    A. Shishu B. Kishor C. Tarun D. Vyapar

    PM Awas Yojana 2.0

     1. How many more houses does the government plan to provide under the PM Awas Yojana in rural and urban areas?

    A. Two crore B. Three crore C. Four crore D. Five crore

    2. What is the goal of PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0?

    A. To provide financial assistance to farmers B. To improve transportation infrastructure C. To address the housing needs of 1 crore urban middle-class and poor families D. To promote digital literacy

    3. How much investment is planned for PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0?

    A. Rs.5 lakh crore B. Rs.10 lakh crore C. Rs.15 lakh crore D. Rs.20 lakh crore

    4. How much central assistance will be provided under PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0 in the next 5 years?

    A. Rs.1.5 lakh crore B. Rs.2.2 lakh crore C. Rs.3 lakh crore D. Rs.4 lakh crore

    5. Who are the primary beneficiaries of PM Awas Yojana Urban 2.0?

    A. Rural artisans B. Urban middle-class and poor families C. Industrial workers D. Government employees

    It was initially launched in 2015

    NPS Vatsalya

    1. What is the primary objective of the NPS Vatsalya plan?

    A. To provide scholarships for students B. To offer health insurance for minors C. To allow contributions by parents and guardians for minors D. To provide housing loans for families

    2. What happens to the NPS Vatsalya plan when the minors attain the age of majority?

    A. It is terminated B. It is converted into a health insurance plan C. It can be seamlessly converted into a normal NPS account D. It requires additional contributions


    Viksit Bharat by 2047

     1. What is the goal of Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. To promote digital literacy B. To improve agricultural productivity C. To make India a developed entity by 2047 D. To enhance technological advancements

    2. Which areas of development are encompassed by Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. Economy and digital literacy B. Economy, environment, good governance, and social progress C. Agriculture and infrastructure D. Education and healthcare

    3. What is the name of the plan formulated for the all-round development of the eastern region of India under Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. Atmanirbhar Bharat B. Digital India C. Purvodaya D. Swachh Bharat

    4. Which states are covered under the Purvodaya plan?

    A. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Punjab B. Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh C. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Telangana D. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Haryana

    5. What aspects will the Purvodaya plan focus on for the development of the eastern region?

    A. Digital literacy and financial assistance B. Infrastructure, human resource development, and the generation of economic opportunities C. Industrial growth and technological advancements D. Employment opportunities and business grants

    6. What role is nuclear energy expected to play in achieving Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. To promote digital literacy B. To improve agricultural productivity C. To be a significant part of the development strategy D. To enhance technological advancements

    7. How will the government pursue the development of nuclear energy under Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. By setting up solar power plants B. By promoting wind energy C. By partnering with the private sector to set up Bharat Small Reactors and research and development of Bharat Small Modular Reactor D. By investing in hydroelectric power

    8. What is the purpose of setting up Bharat Small Reactors under Viksit Bharat 2047?

    A. To promote digital literacy B. To improve agricultural productivity C. To develop newer technologies for nuclear energy D. To enhance technological advancements

    Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN)

    2. What is the total outlay of the PM-JANMAN scheme?

    A. Rs 20,000 crore B. Rs 24,104 crore C. Rs 18,500 crore D. Rs 22,000 crore

    3. How much of the total outlay will be contributed by the Centre?

    A. Rs 12,500 crore B. Rs 15,336 crore C. Rs 10,000 crore D. Rs 17,000 crore

    4. On which occasion did the Prime Minister announce the PM-JANMAN?

    A. Republic Day B. Independence Day C. Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas D. Gandhi Jayanti

    5. What is the main objective of the Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission announced in the Budget Speech 2023-24?

    A. To promote digital literacy B. To provide employment opportunities C. To improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) D. To enhance technological advancements

    7. How many communities have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India?

    A. 60 communities B. 75 communities C. 85 communities D. 90 communities

    8. How many states and union territories have communities classified as PVTGs?

    A. 15 states and 1 union territory B. 18 states and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands C. 20 states and 2 union territories D. 12 states and 1 union territory

    9. What are some of the basic facilities that the Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission aims to provide [11 critical interventions through 9 line Ministries]?

    A. Digital literacy and financial assistance B. Safe housing, clean drinking water, sanitation, education, health, nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities C. Industrial growth and technological advancements D. Employment opportunities and business grants

    10. Which ministry is primarily responsible for the implementation of PM-JANMAN?

    A. Ministry of Home Affairs B. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment C. Ministry of Tribal Affairs D. Ministry of Finance

    National Food Security Act (NFSA)

     1. What is the primary objective of the National Food Security Act (NFSA)?

    A. To provide employment opportunities B. To improve agricultural productivity C. To promote digital literacy D. To provide legal right to persons belonging to eligible households to receive food grains at subsidized prices

    2. Under the NFSA, at what price is rice provided to eligible households?

    A. Rs 5/kg B. Rs 4/kg C. Rs 3/kg D. Rs 2/kg

    3. What is the price of wheat provided under the NFSA to eligible households?

    A. Rs 4/kg B. Rs 3/kg C. Rs 2.50/kg D. Rs 2/kg

    4. At what price are coarse grains provided to eligible households under the NFSA?

    A. Rs 3/kg B. Rs 1/kg C. Rs 2/kg D. Rs 1.50/kg

    👉Rice, Wheat and Coarse grain -> 3, 2 1

    5. What percentage of the rural population is legally entitled to receive subsidized food grains under the NFSA?

    A. 80% B. 70% C. 75% D. 65%

    6. What percentage of the urban population is eligible for subsidized food grains under the NFSA?

    A. 60% B. 40% C. 50% D. 45%

    7. Under which system are the food grains distributed to eligible households as per the NFSA?

    A. Public Distribution System (PDS) B. Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) C. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) D. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)

    8. Who is responsible for identifying eligible households under the NFSA?

    A. Central Government B. Non-Governmental Organizations C. State Governments/Union Territory Administrations D. Private Companies

    9. What types of grains are provided to eligible households under the NFSA at subsidized prices?

    A. Only rice B. Only wheat C. Only coarse grains D. Rice, wheat, and coarse grains

    10. What was the broader aim of introducing the NFSA?

    A. To boost foreign investment B. To promote industrial growth C. To offer relief to the poor and marginalized by ensuring food security D. To enhance technological advancements